Best IAS Coaching in Delhi Civil Services Exam Preparation 2019

GS Prelims Question paper and Solution -2019

GS Prelims-2019 Question Paper-Set-D :

Q.1 With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements?


1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.

2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.

3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.


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Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


(a)1 only

(b)2 and 3 only.

(c)1 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia. Headquartered in Beijing, it has now grown to 97 approved. members worldwide.

Statement 2 is not correct : China has the single largest voting share at 26.6 percent.

Statement 3 is not correct: It has various non-Asian countries also as its members. It recently approved members comprises Algeria, Ghana, Libya, Morocco, Serbia and Togo.


Q.2. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?


(a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit.

(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments.

(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more

(d)To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending


Explanation


The inter-creditor agreement is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of ₹50 crore and above that are under the control of a group of lenders. It is part of the “Sashakt” plan approved by the government to address the problem of resolving bad loans.


Q.3. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the


(a) Banks Board Bureau

(b) Reserve Bank of India

(c) Union Ministry of Finance

(d) Management of concerned bank


Explanation


The Government has set up an autonomous Banks Board Bureau for selection of heads of Public Sector Banks and Financial Institutions and help Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans


Q.4. Consider the following statements:


1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.

2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.

3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.


Which of the statements given above are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only.

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is not correct: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. There were various regulatory bodies established prior to this.

Statement 2 is correct : The board protects the interest of consumers by fostering fair trade and competition amongst the entities. This is one of the functions of the board.

Statement 3 is correct : Tribunal established under Electricity Act, 2003 shall be the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 and the said Appellate Tribunal shall exercise the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on it by or under the Act.


Q.5 With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?


1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G

2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d ) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 is not correct: 4G means the fourth generation of data technology for mobile networks or VoLTE, while the LTE stands for Long Term Evolution or 3G.

Statement 2 is not correct: Through LTE, we can only surf the web i.e., use the data. So, all the other services like voice calls, SMS messages will not be served through the LTE network (they use 2G/3G technologies instead). The VoLTE stands for Voice Over LTE. It means that unlike the 4G LTE, even the calls, SMS and web browsing will be served through the 4G VoLTE technology.

Q.6. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit ' (Amendment) Act, 2017?


1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.

2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.

3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c ) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 protects the employment of women in her maternity period and entitles her of maternity benefit—full paid absence from work—to take care of her child. The act is applicable to all establishments employing 10 or more persons.

Statement 1 is not correct and 3 is correct:The Act has increased the duration of paid maternity leaves to 26 weeks (6 months) from the present 12 weeks. The extended period is applicable to women in case of the first and second child. Women who are expecting after having 2 children, the duration of paid maternity leave shall be 12 weeks i.e. 6 weeks pre-delivery and 6 weeks post-delivery.


Statement 2 is incorrect:The Act makes it compulsory for every establishment employing 50 or more women to have in-house creche facilities and allows women to visit the facility 4 times during the day. But the age of the children up to which they are entitled to the facility of crèche is not mentioned in the Act.


Q.7. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?


(a) Maintenance of law and order

(b) Paying taxes

(c) Registering property

(d) Dealing with construction permits


Explanation


Maintenance of law and order is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'.


Q.8. In India,'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?


(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998

(b) The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999

(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011


Explanation


The E-Waste (Management & Handling) Rules, 2011 places the main responsibility of e-waste management on the producers of the electrical and electronic equipment by introducing the concept of “extended producer responsibility” (EPR).

Q.9. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus


(a) transportation cost only

(b) interest cost only

(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost

(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns


Explanation


The economic cost of food grains to the FCI is MSP and bonus paid to the farmers plus procurement incidentals and distribution cost.


Q.10. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?


(a) The proportion of literates in the population

(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines

(c) The size of population in the working age group

(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society


Explanation


Social capital is defined by the OECD as “networks together with shared norms, values and understandings that facilitate co-operation within or among groups”. In this definition, we can think of networks as real-world links between groups or individuals. Hence the level of mutual trust and harmony in the society.


Q.11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of


(a) Integrated Rural Programme

(b) Lead Bank Scheme

(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

(d) National Skill Development Mission


Explanation


The Service Area Approach (SAA) was a scheme launched under the purview of Lead Bank Scheme. The Service Area Approach (SAA) was a scheme launched by the RBI in 1989 for an orderly development of the rural areas of the country. Under the SAA, all rural and semi-urban branches of banks were allocated specific villages, generally in geographical difficult areas, the overall development and the credit needs of which were to be taken care of by the respective branches. The concerned bank should meet the banking needs of the service area by creating link between bank credit- production and productivity and income expansion.


Q.12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:


1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.

2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.

3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: Sand is classified as a minor mineral and it is defined in the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act). The Act says: “minor minerals means building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes, and any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the official gazette, declare to be a minor mineral”.


Statement 2 is not correct: Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers State Governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals. The regulation of grant of mineral concessions and complete administrative control for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the State Governments. Hence, under the power granted, the State Governments have framed their own minor minerals concession rules and policies related to the same.


Statement 3 is correct: Section 23C of the MMDR Act, 1957 empowers State Governments to frame rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals.


Q.13. Consider the following statements


1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.

2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.


Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


External debt is the money that borrowers in a country owe to foreign lenders. India’s external debt was $513.4 billion at the end of December 2017.

Statement 1 is not correct: Most of the external debt was owed by private businesses which borrowed at attractive rates from foreign lenders. To be precise, 78.8% of the total external debt ($404.5 billion) was owed by non-governmental entities like private companies.

Statement 2 is not correct: The external debt is denominated in currencies other than the US Dollar as well.

US dollar denominated debt continued to be the largest component of India's external debt with a share of 45.9% at end December 2018, followed by the Indian rupee (24.8%), SDR (5.1%), yen (4.9%) and euro (3.1%).


Q.14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?


(a) Advances

(b) Deposits

(c) Investments

(d)Money at call and short notice


Explanation


Deposits are not included under the assets of a commercial bank.


Q.15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?


1.The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector

2.Increasing the government expenditure.

3. Remittances from Indians abroad


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


A currency crisis is brought on by a decline in the value of a country's currency. This decline in value negatively affects an economy by creating instabilities in exchange rates, meaning that one unit of a certain currency no longer buys as much as it used to in another currency.


Statement 1 and 3 are correct: The foreign currency earnings of the IT sector and remittances from Indians abroad reveal confidence in the currency and hence help in reducing the risk of currency crisis.


Statement 2 is not correct: Increasing the government expenditure will reduce the confidence in the currency of the country hence won't contribute to the reduction in the risk."


Q.16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?


(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)


Explanation


Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the government of India to examine the central-state relationship and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution of India. The final report contains 247 recommendations spreading over the 19 Chapters. Chapter 5 related to Governor says: A person to be appointed as a Governor should satisfy the following criteria :


(i) He should be eminent in some walk of life.

(ii) He should be a person from outside the State.

(iii) He should be a detached figure and not too intimately connected with the local politics of the State;

(iv) He should be a person who has not taken too great a part in politics generally and particularly in the recent past. In selecting a Governor in accordance with the above criteria, persons belonging to the minority groups should continue to be given a chance as hitherto.


Q.17. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?


(a) Certificate of Deposit

(b) Commercial Paper

(c) Promissory Note

(d) Participatory Note


Explanation


A participatory note, commonly known as a P-note or PN, is an instrument issued by a registered foreign institutional investor (FII) to an overseas investor who wishes to invest in Indian stock markets without registering themselves with the market regulator, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).


Q.18. Consider the following statements


1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.

2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct:THE COMPENSATORY AFFORESTATION FUND ACT, 2016 establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities to manage the National and State Funds.

Statement 2 is not correct: People participation is not mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.


Q.19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?


1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament

2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees

3. Finance Commission

4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5. NITI Aayog


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2 and 5


Explanation


With economic liberalisation in the 1990s, the private sector’s participation in providing infrastructure and services grew. Functions that were previously performed by the government were now also performed by private operators. The shift in the approach necessitated the regulation of sectors where private operators were permitted. One of the main bodies to regulate is Parliament.


Statement 1 and 2 are correct: In India, parliamentary scrutiny of the regulators can take place through the following means:

(i) Question Hour;

(ii) discussions in Parliament;

(iii) Parliamentary Committees.


Statements 3, 4 and 5 are incorrect. Role of Finance Commission is related to fiscal federalism, NITI Aayog plays the role in cooperative Federalism. The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC) was a commission that has recommended revamping the legislative framework governing the financial sector by a non-sectoral, principle-based approach and restructuring existing regulatory agencies and creating new agencies wherever needed.


Q.20. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?


1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.

2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.

3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is not correct: The Second Five Year Plan emphasised the use of modem technology which required large scale production and a unified control and allocation of resources in certain major lines of activity. These include exploitation, of minerals and basic and capital goods industries which are major determinants of the rate of growth of the economy.


Statement 2 is correct: The Fourth Plan provided necessary corrective to the earlier trend which helped particularly the stronger sections in agriculture as well as in industry to enable them rapidly to enlarge and diversify the production base. In the long run, the full potential of growth cannot be realised unless the energies of all our people are put to profitable use. The emphasis on spreading the impetus and benefits of economic growth to the weaker sections is thus necessary in the interest of equality as well as growth.


NOTE: If statement 1 is interpreted as a statement made in the context of the imports the statement will be true. It will depend on the examiner’s take on the same.

Q.21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:


1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.


Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India has embodied various Fundamental Rights in Part III of the constitution. Constitution enables Parliament to legislate only subject to the limitations imposed by these Fundamental Rights. In case of these limitations are transgressed, the SC and the High Courts are competent to declare a law as unconstitutional and Void. Further, The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the state high courts below it. This single system of courts enforces both the Central laws as well as the state laws.


Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 13 declares that a constitutional amendment is not a law and hence cannot be challenged. However, the Supreme Court held in the Kesavananda Bharati case2 (1973) that a Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void.


Q.22. Consider the following statements


1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.

2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.


Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: PPPs are the rates of currency conversion that equalize the purchasing power of different currencies by eliminating the differences in price levels between countries. In their simplest form, PPPs are simply price relatives that show the ratio of the prices in national currencies of the same good or service in different countries. PPPs are also calculated for product groups and for each of the various levels of aggregation up to and including GDP.

Statement 2 is not correct: India is the third largest economy when PPP dollars are used to measure the economy.


Q.23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:


1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.

2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.

3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.

4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.


Which of the statements given above are correct?


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: The area under rice crop was 43.86 million hectares during 2014-15. While the area under wheat is around 30 Million hectares in 2017-18


Statement 2 is not correct: Area under cultivation of Jowar is 5.14 million hectares in 2016-17 while that under oilseed is 26.21 million hectares in 2016-17


Statement 3 is correct: Area under cotton cultivation in India is 10.85 million hectares.


Statement 4 is not correct: Area under Sugarcane has increased in India from 4.42 million hectares in 2008-09 to 5.04 million hectares in 2012-13 to 4.39 million hectares in 2016-17


Q.24.Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?


(a) Spices

( b) Fresh fruits

( c) Pulses

( d) Vegetable oils


Explanation


The value of vegetable oil imports has averaged about 70,000 Crore whereas The pulses averaged at about 20,000 Crore, the fresh fruits at about 10,000 Crores and the spices at about 5,000 Crore.


Q.25. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?


(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully


.

Explanation


Concept of Liberty has two dimensions: Positive and Negative Dimension. Thus, the term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities. The second dimension is positive conception of liberty that is broad and includes the first meaning.


Q.26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?


(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports

(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds

(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing

(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy


Explanation


Higher interest rates in an economy tend to draw foreign investment, increasing the demand for and value of the home currency. Similarly, lower interest rates tend to decrease exchange rates. The expansionary policy involves decrease in interest rate charged by the central bank to the banks which tends to decrease exchange rates as draws lesser foreign investments.


Q.27.Consider the following statements:


The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India

2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises

3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


It is important to have unfettered supervisory access to data stored with these system providers as also with their service providers / intermediaries/ third party vendors and other entities in the payment ecosystem hence the directives were released by the RBI.


Statement 1 is correct : All system providers shall ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India. This data should include the full end-to-end transaction details / information collected / carried / processed as part of the message / payment instruction. For the foreign leg of the transaction, if any, the data can also be stored in the foreign country, if required.

Statement 2 is not correct: There was no directive related to the ownership and operation of the system.

Statement 3 is not correct: System providers shall submit the System Audit Report (SAR) conducted by CERT-IN empanelled auditors certifying completion of activity. The SAR duly approved by the Board of the system providers should be submitted to the Reserve Bank not later than December 31, 2018.

Q.28. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?


(a) Australia

(b) Canada

(c) The European Union

(d) The United States of America


Explanation


The EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is the most important change in data privacy regulation in 20 years. GDPR was finally approved by the EU Parliament on 14 April 2016. It was enforced on 25 May 2018 after four years of preparation and debate. The organizations that are not compliant can now face heavy fines under it.


Q.29. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?


(a) Japan

(b) Russia

(c) The United Kingdom

(d) The United States of America


Explanation


Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Co-operation Areas in the Nuclear Field Identified Jointly by India and Russia was signed by India with Russia. It was signed on 5th October, 2018 in New Delhi during the visit of H. E. Vladimir Putin, President of the Russian Federation to India.


Q.30. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?


(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio

(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population

(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio

(d) Increase in the population of the country


Explanation


Money multiplier is the ratio of total money supply to the stock of high powered money in an economy.

Statement (a) is not correct: If the central bank raises the minimum-reserve ratio, then the amount of deposit created by the banking system as a whole will fall.

Statement (b) is correct: The credit creating capacity of the commercial banks also depends on the banking habits of the people. In industrially advanced countries the banking habits of the people are well- developed and most of the transactions are settled through cheques. Obviously, the credit creating capacity of the commercial banks is higher in such countries. The prevalence of the barter system and lack of monetization in most developing countries of Asia, Latin America and Africa obstruct multiple credit expansion by the banking system.

Statement (c) is not correct: If the central bank raises the statutory liquidity ratio, then the amount of deposit created by the banking system as a whole will fall.

Statement (d) is not correct: The population cannot determine the money multiplier for an economy.


Q.31.Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:


1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.

2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.

3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.


Which of the statements given above are correct?


(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation


Statement 1 is correct and 3 is not correct: 75 tribal groups have been categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands.

Statement 2 is correct: In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government renamed the PTGs as PVTGs. PVTGs have some basic characteristics -mostly homogenous, with a small population, relatively physically isolated, social institutes cast in a simple mould, absence of written language, relatively simple technology and a slower rate of change or declining population etc.

Statement 4 is correct: Both the tribes are part of PVTGs. Konda Reddi tribe belongs to Andhra Pradesh. Konda Reddi tribe is one of the ancient tribes in India. They are living on the hilly terrains of Bison hills which spread in East and West Godavari districts along the banks of the river Godavari. At present, the population is only in hundreds and livelihood is depended on the forest products like honey, gathering the medicinal plants, leaves, roots and so. The Irula tribe is one of India’s oldest indigenous communities, living along the borders of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Irulas are specialists in traditional herbal medicine and healing practices, and Irula ‘vaidyars’ (practitioners of any Indian systems of medicine) are mostly women and practice traditional healing systems which use over 320 medicinal herbs..


Q.32. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?


(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.


Explanation


Article 142 provides that “the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it." Thus, the article grants extraordinary powers to the judiciary to do complete justice. The SC will not be bound by any law existing in the country.


Q.33. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:


1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2. When a State Legislature does' not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.


Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor shall Address both the Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after each general election to the Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform the Legislature of the causes of its Summons. The Address of the Governor contains a review of the activities and Achievements of the Government during the previous year and their policy with regard to important internal problems as well as a brief account of the program of Government Business for the session.


Statement 2 is not correct: Article 208 states that a House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating its procedure and the conduct of its business. Until such rules are made, the rules of procedure and standing orders in force immediately before the commencement of this Constitution with respect to the Legislature for the corresponding Province shall have effect. The Speaker may make any modifications and adaptations.

.

Q.34. Consider the following statements:


1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.

2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.

3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.

4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.


Which of the statements given above are correct?


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Explanation


Statement 1 is not correct: The Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air is a protocol to United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime.

Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument. The Convention's far-reaching approach and the mandatory character of many of its provisions make it a unique tool for developing a comprehensive response to a global problem. The vast majority of United Nations Member States are parties to the Convention.

Statement 3 is not correct: A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Corruption is the inclusion of a specific chapter on asset recovery, aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners, including countries from which they had been taken illicitly.

Statement 4 is correct: The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime is available to provide assistance in implementing both the mentioned Conventions.


Q.35. Consider the following statements:


1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.

2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.

3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.


Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is not correct: The Indian Forest Act, 1927, was amended in 2018 with the aim to transform the bamboo sector. Before, bamboo was categorised as a tree. The amendment permits the felling and transit of bamboo grown in non-forest areas.

Statement 2 is correct: According to the Act, "minor forest “produce includes all non-timber forest produce of plant origin including bamboo, brush wood, stumps, cane, tussar, cocoons, honey, wax, lac, tendu or kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tubers and the like.

Statement 3 is correct:The Act provides the right of ownership, access to collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce which has been traditionally collected within or outside village boundaries.


Q.36. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?


(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(c) Article 25

(d) Article 29


Explanation


Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. SC has held that the ‘right to life’ as embodied in Article 21 is not merely confined to animal existence or survival but it includes within its ambit the right to live with human dignity and all those aspects of life which go to make a man’s life meaningful, complete and worth living. In Khap Panchayat judgment, the SC held that Khap Panchayats, often encourage honour killing and other atrocities on boys and girls of different castes and religion violating their right to life and personal liberty. Thus, they need to be strictly dealt with and ruthlessly stamped out.


Q.37. Consider the following statements:


According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.

2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board

.

3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Plants and animals in whole or any part thereof other than microorganisms but including seeds, varieties and species and essentially biological processes for production or propagation of plants and animals are not patentable in India. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was constituted on September 15, 2003, by the Indian Government to hear and resolve the appeals against the decisions of the registrar under the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.

Q.38. Consider the following statements:


The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought

2. lay down The standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources


Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 vests the central government with the power to lay down standards for the quality of environment in its various aspects and standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources whatsoever. However, doesn't contain any provision related to public participation


Q.39. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.

(b) The Rules are applicable to ratified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.

(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities

.

(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.


Explanation


Statement (a) is not correct: The Solid Waste Management rules 2016 have mandated the source segregation of waste into three streams- Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellents, cleaning agents etc.).

Statement (b) is not correct: The SWM rules are applicable beyond municipal areas and have included urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, special economic zones, places of pilgrimage, religious and historical importance, and State and Central Government organisations in their ambit.

Statement (c) is correct: Elaborate criteria for landfill includes -- for census towns with a population below 1 million or for all local bodies having a population of 0.5 million or more, common, or stand-alone sanitary landfills will have to be set up in three year time. Also, common, or regional sanitary landfills to be set up by all local bodies and census towns with a population under 0.5 million will have to be completed in three years

Statement (d) in not correct: The responsibility of CPCB includes providing guidance to States or Union territories on inter-state movement of waste


Q.40. Consider the following statements:


As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.

2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 and 2 are correct: As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946, no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen. The move towards fixed-term employment will make it easier for companies to layoff workers.


Q.41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:


1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.

2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.

3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.

4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.


Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 4 only


Explanation


Augmented reality (AR) adds digital elements to a live view often by using the camera on a smartphone. Examples of augmented reality experiences include Snapchat lenses and the game Pokemon Go. Virtual reality (VR) implies a complete immersion experience that shuts out the physical world. Using VR devices such as HTC Vive, Oculus Rift or Google Cardboard, users can be transported into a number of real-world and imagined environments such as the middle of a squawking penguin colony or even the back of a dragon. In a mixed reality (MR) experience, which combines elements of both AR and VR, real-world and digital objects interact. Mixed reality technology is just now starting to take off with Microsoft’s HoloLens one of the most notable early mixed reality apparatuses


Q.42. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in the media in reference to


(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

(b) an early human species

(c) a cave system found in North-East India.

(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent


Explanation :


The Denisovans are considered an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans in the genus Homo. They are known from the scraps of bone they left in Siberia’s Denisova Cave in Russia and the genetic legacy they bequeathed to living people across Asia.


Q.43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?


(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Laboratories.

(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.

(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.


Explanation


Statement (a) is not correct: Functional chromosomes cannot be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

Statement (b) is correct: Recently, scientists have created a living organism whose DNA is entirely human-made — perhaps a new form of life.

Statement (c) and (d) are correct: DNA replication can also be performed artificially, outside a cell.


Q.44. Consider the following statements:


A digital signature is

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it

2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on the Internet.

3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged


Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation


A digital signature is a mathematical scheme for verifying the authenticity of digital messages or documents. A valid digital signature, where the prerequisites are satisfied, gives a recipient a very strong reason to believe that the message was created by a known sender (authentication), and that the message was not altered in transit (integrity).

NOTE: If word digital signature is comprehended as 'Digital Signature Certificate', then it will serve as a proof of identity. In that case answer will be 'D' Additional Information: Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper certificates. Few Examples of physical certificates are drivers' licenses, passports or membership cards. Certificates serve as proof of identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a driver's license identifies someone who can legally drive in a particular country. Likewise, a digital certificate can be presented electronically to prove one’s identity, to access information or services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally.


Additional Information: Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper certificates. A few examples of physical certificates are drivers' licenses, passports or membership cards. Certificates serve as proof of identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a driver's license identifies someone who can legally drive in a particular country. Likewise, a digital certificate can be presented electronically to prove one’s identity, to access information or services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally.

Q.45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?


1. Location identification of a person

Sleep monitoring of a person

3. Assisting the hearing impaired person


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Wearable technology, wearables, fashion technology, tech togs, or fashion electronics are smart electronic devices (electronic devices with micro-controllers) that can be incorporated into clothing or worn on the body as implants or accessories. The technology finds application in all the mentioned tasks..


Q.46.RNA interference (RNAi)technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?


1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.

2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.

3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.

4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1 and 4 only


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: RNA interference (RNAi), an evolutionarily conserved mechanism triggered by double-stranded RNA (dsRNA), causes gene silencing in a sequence-specific manner. RNAi evolved naturally to mediate protection from both endogenous and exogenous pathogenic nucleic acids and to modulate gene expression.


Statement 2 and 4 are correct. Multiple technological advancements and precision in gene targeting have allowed a plethora of potential applications, ranging from targeting infections in crop plants to improving health in human patients. The use of RNAi is not limited to the determination of mammalian gene function, and also could be used for treating viral infections and cancer.


Statement 3 is incorrect. Hormone replacement therapy is used to help balance Estrogen and progesterone in women around the time of menopause. It is different from the RNAi technology. Statement 4 is correct.


Q.47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'black holes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?


(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.

(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.

(e) Possibility of intergalactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.

(d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.


Explanation


Gravitational waves are 'ripples' in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe. Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity. In 2015, scientists detected gravitational waves for the very first time. They used a very sensitive instrument called LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory). These first gravitational waves happened when two black holes crashed into one another. The collision happened 1.3 billion years ago. But, the ripples made it to Earth in2015.


48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?


1. Genetic predisposition of some people

2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases

3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 only

(e) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: Microbial resistance not genetic in nature and thus no one is born with microbial resistance.

Statement 2 is correct: Incorrectly prescribed antibiotics also contribute to the promotion of resistant bacteria. Incorrectly prescribed antibiotics have questionable therapeutic benefit and expose patients to potential complications of antibiotic therapy.

Statement 3 is correct: Numerous cases of antimicrobial resistance in humans have been traced to resistant microbes suspected of originating in livestock. Increased use of antibiotics in livestock leads to their antimicrobial resistance. This resistance is transferred from livestock to humans. Transmission of resistant bacteria from livestock to humans can occur through the consumption of meat, direct contact with colonized animals or manure spread in the environment.

Statement 4 is correct: No one can completely avoid the risk of resistant infections, but some people are at greater risk than others (for example, people with chronic illnesses). If antibiotics lose their effectiveness, then we lose the ability to treat infections and control public health threats.


Q.49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news?


(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant

(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops


Explanation


CRISPR-Cas9 is a unique technology that enables geneticists and medical researchers to edit parts of the genome by removing, adding or altering sections of the DNA sequence. It is currently the simplest, most versatile and precise method of genetic manipulation and is therefore causing a buzz in the science world.


50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?


(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.


Explanation


Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is transmitted through exposure to infective blood, semen, and other body fluids. HBV can be transmitted from infected mothers to infants at the time of birth or from family members to infants in early childhood. Transmission may also occur through transfusions of HBV-contaminated blood and blood products, contaminated injections during medical procedures, and through injection drug use. HBV also poses a risk to healthcare workers who sustain accidental needle stick injuries while caring for infected-HBV patients. Safe and effective vaccines are available to prevent HBV. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) is mostly transmitted through exposure to infective blood. This may happen through transfusions of HCV-contaminated blood and blood products, contaminated injections during medical procedures, and through injection drug use. Sexual transmission is also possible, but is much less common. There is no vaccine for HCV. Hence option b is incorrect.


Q.51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?


1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.


Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(e) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 is not correct: In return of all the privileges and superior rights, the zamindars were supposed to perform certain duties. Their main function naturally was the collection and deposition of the land revenue into the royal treasury. Besides this, the zamindars were expected to maintain law and order in their jurisdictions. They also helped the state officials in curbing the refractory and rebellious elements. The troops maintained by the zamindars were to be placed at the disposal of the state officials whenever the need arose.


Statement 2 is not correct: Jaggirdari was neither permanent nor hereditary


Q.52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) The ceiling "laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.

(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.


Explanation


Option (a) is not correct and (b) is correct: Equity in agriculture called for land reforms which primarily refer to change in the ownership of landholdings. Just a year after independence, steps were taken to abolish intermediaries and to make the tillers the owners of land. The idea behind this move was that ownership of land would give incentives to the tillers to invest in making improvements provided sufficient capital was made available to them. Land ceiling was another policy to promote equity in the agricultural sector. This means fixing the maximum size of land which could be owned by an individual.

Option (c) is not correct: The policy resulted in fragmentation of land holdings. As a result, cultivation of cash crops became difficult.

Option (d) is not correct: One of the major reasons for the failure of land ceiling laws was a number of exemptions that they came with. For example, categories of lands under tea, rubber, coffee plantations etc. were exempted from ceiling limitations."


.

Q.53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the


(a) International Monetary Fund

(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

(c) World Economic Forum

(d) World Bank


Explanation


The Global Competitiveness Report is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum.

.

Q.54. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813'


1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.

2.It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.

3.The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.


Which of the statements given above are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: Although the Act renewed the Charter for a further period of twenty years, it took away the exclusive privilege of the Company to trade in India. The Indian trade was thrown open to all British subjects except in tea in which the Company was allowed to retain a monopoly.

Statement 2 is correct: The 1813 Act is also quite significant because in its Preamble, it asserted the undoubted sovereignty of the Crown of United Kingdom in and over the territories of the Company.

Statement 3 is not correct: From 1853, the revenues of India were controlled by the British Parliament.


Q.55. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:


1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.

2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: During the Swadeshi Movement It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries. Like Business ventures by Prafulla Chandra Roy (Father of Indian Pharmaceuticals), Constructive work in Village by Rabindranath Tagore. (He called it 'atmashakti', concept of Swadeshi samaj).

Statement 2 is correct: On 11 March.1906, the National Council of Education, Bengal was constituted. It was registered on 1st June.1906. There were 96 Founder members in the Council: Subodh Chandra Mallick, Bipin Chandra Pal, P. Mitter, Surendranath Banerji, Gagendranath Tagore, Rabindranath Tagore, Chittaranjan Das, Arabinda Ghose, Satish Chandra Mukherjee, A. Rasul, Aswini Kumar Dutt, Radha Kumud Mukherjee and other eminent personalities.


Q.56. Consider the following pairs:


1. All India Anti-Untouchability League -Mahatma Gandhi

2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand -Saraswati

3. Self-Respect Movement- E. V. Ramaswami Naicker


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


In order to better organize the campaign for the amelio¬ration of the untouchables’ condition, Gandhi set up a new body in October 1932. It was first named the All India Anti-Untouchability League and later renamed the Harijan Sevak Sangh. The All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) was an important peasant movement formed by Sahajanand Saraswati at the Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1936. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, or Periyar founded the Self Respect Movement.


Q.57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?


(a) Chanhudaro

(b) Kot Diji

(c) Sohgaura

(d) Desalpur


Explanation


Sohgaura Copper Plat is a Mauryan record that mentions famine relief efforts. It is one of the very few pre Ashoka Brahmi inscriptions in India.


Q.58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka ?


(a) Kanganahalli

(b) Sanchi I

(c) Shahbazgarhi

(d) Sohgaura


Explanation


The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has unearthed a panel at Kanganhalli Mahastupa in Karnataka that depicts the emperor with his queen surrounded by several women. The veneering slab is inscribed in Brahmi script with the words "Ranyo Ashoka" (Asoka the Great).


Q.59. Consider the following


:

1. Deification of the Buddha

2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas

3. Image worship and rituals


Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


By the first century CE, there is evidence of changes in Buddhist ideas and practices. Early Buddhist teachings had given great importance to self-effort in achieving Nirvana. Besides, the Buddha was regarded as a human being who attained enlightenment and Nirvana through his own efforts. However, gradually the idea of a saviour emerged. It was believed that he was the one who could ensure salvation. Simultaneously, the concept of the Bodhisattvaa also developed. Bodhisattvas were perceived as deeply compassionate beings who accumulated merit through their efforts but used this not to attain Nirvana and thereby abandon the world but to help others. The worship of images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas became an important part of this tradition.


Q.60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.

Explanation


Earlier Vishti was purely forced labour but during the Gupta period It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.


61. Which one of the following groups of plants were domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?


(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber

(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane

(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat


Explanation


Old World refers to Africa, Asia, and Europe while New World refers to the Americas, including North America, Central America, and South America. Europe, Asia, and Africa shared a common agricultural history that originated from the Neolithic Revolution. The three continents shared common domesticated plants and animals making it easy to group them together. The Old World crops include wheat, rye, oats, lentils, and barley. The Old World animals include sheep, pigs, chickens, goats, horses, and cattle. Such animals and crops did not exist in the Americas until their introduction in the 1490s by post-Columbian contact. The famous New World crops include rubber, tobacco, sunflower, cocoa, and cashew. New World fruits include papaya, pineapple, and guava. The merchants of Europe took products of the New World to Europe, including tobacco, potatoes, cane sugar, cacao and rubber.

NOTE: Some plants such as cotton and yam as well as some animals like the dog are believed to have existed in both worlds.


Q.62. Consider the following statements:


1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.

2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.

3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.


Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 3 is not correct: One-horned rhino is also found in Nepal.

Statement 1 is correct: Pandharpur is located on the banks of Chandrabhaga river.

Statement 2 is correct: Tiruchirappalli, situated on the banks of the river Cauvery is the fourth largest city in Tamil Nadu

Statement 3 is not correct: Hampi is situated on the banks of Tungabhadra River.


Q.63. Consider the following pairs?


Pandharpur- Chandrabhaga

Tiruchirappalli- Cauvery

Hampi -Malaprabha


Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: Pandharpur is located on the banks of Chandrabhaga river

Statement 2 is correct: Tiruchirappalli, situated on the banks of the river Cauvery is the fourth largest city in Tamil Nadu

Statement 3 is not correct: Hampi is situated on the banks of Tungabhadra River


Q.64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because


(a) poverty rates vary from State to State

(b) price levels vary from State to State

(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State

(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State


Explanation


The official poverty lines vary from State to State because of inter-state price differentials.


Q.65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere?


(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions

(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

(d) Reducing global warming


Explanation


Cirrus clouds do not reflect a lot of solar radiation back into space, but because they form at high altitudes and cold temperatures, they trap long-wave radiation and have a climate impact similar to greenhouse gases. Thinning cirrus clouds would be achieved by injecting ice nuclei (such as dust) into regions where cirrus clouds form, making the ice crystals bigger and reducing the cirrus optical depth. Thinning the clouds could, according to researchers Ulrike Lohmann and Blaž Gasparini from ETH Zurich, allow more heat to escape into space and thereby cool the planet."


Q.66 In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?


(a) Extraction of rare earth elements

(b) Natural gas extraction technologies

(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

(d) Waste-to-energy technologies


Explanation


Like incineration, pyrolysis, gasification and plasma technologies are thermal processes that use high temperatures to break down waste. The main difference is that they use less oxygen than traditional mass-burn incineration. (Advanced Thermal Technology (ATT) processes)


Q.67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?


(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park

(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: Three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara, Neyyar and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger reserve are included in the site


Q.68. Consider the following statements:


1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.

2. Some species of fish are herbivores.

3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.

4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.


Which of the statements given above are correct?


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(e) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: Herbivorous turtle ants obtain essential nutrients from a conserved nitrogen-recycling gut microbiome.

Statement 2 is correct: Herbivorous fishes are fishes that eat plant material. Surgeonfish and parrotfish are two familiar MAR examples, often seen browsing and scraping on reef algae.

Statement 3 is correct: Manatees and Dugongs, often called sea cows, are herbivores. They are marine mammals.

Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles. Boa constrictors and green anacondas are two examples of viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young with no eggs involved at any stage of development.


Q.69. Consider the following pairs:


1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River

2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River

3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats


Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: In the Cauvery, the Mahseer community comprises two varieties—a “blue-finned” fish and an “orange-finned, hump-backed” one.

Statement 2 is not correct: Irrawady Dolphin is sighted in Chilika, Gahirmatha and Balasore area of Orissa in India.

Statement 3 is correct: Rusty spotted cat is found throughout much of the Indian subcontinent. It has been camera trapped in Pilibhit and Corbett Tiger Reserves, in the Indian Terai, as well as in Bardia National Park in Nepal. In Sri Lanka, the cat has been recorded from montane and lowland rainforest.


Q.70. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into the environment?


(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems

.

(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children

.

(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.


Explanation


Microbeads are small, solid, manufactured plastic particles that are less than 5mm and don’t degrade or dissolve in water. They may be added to a range of products, including rinse-off cosmetics, personal care and cleaning products. Microbeads are used as ingredients in these products for a variety of purposes. This includes as an abrasive, a bulking agent, for controlled timed release of active ingredients, and to prolong shelf life. They are also a relatively cheap ingredient. Once in the water, microbeads can have a damaging effect on marine life, the environment and human health. This is due to their composition, ability to adsorb toxins and potential to transfer up the marine food chain. These tiny plastics persist in the environment as they are almost impossible to remove. The best way to reduce their impact is to prevent them from entering the environment.


Q.71. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of


(a) Chalukya

(b) Chandela

(c) Rashtrakuta

(d) Vijayanagara


Explanation


Kalyan Mandapas was a notable feature of the Vijanagara Empire’s architecture.


Q.72. Consider the following statements:


1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.

2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.

3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct : Amil was the revenue collector .

Statement 2 is not correct: The agricultural and land revenue system of the early Turkish Sultans rested on two foundations viz. the Iqta (assignment of land revenue) and Kharaj. Under the Iqta System, the land of the empire was divided into several large and small tracts called Iqta and assigned these Iqtas to his soldiers, office officers and nobles. In the beginning, an Iqta was based upon salary. Later, under Firoz Shah Tughlaq it became hereditary.


Q.73. Consider the following statements:


1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar

.

2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 is not correct: Saint Nibarka (11-13th century) was not a contemporary of Akbar (16th century).

Statement 2 is not correct: Kabir died in 1519 and Sarhindi was born in 1564. So Kabir can never be influenced by him.


Q.74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:


1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.

2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.

3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.


Which of the statements given above are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Indentured labour system soon died after Gandhi left South Africa. Also, Gandhi‘s colleague C.F. Andrews contributed in the abolition campaign.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Gandhi did support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.


Q.75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:


1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru President, All India Liberal Federation

2. K. C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly

3. P. C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of India


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


The Indian Liberals who were the erstwhile Moderates in the Congress functioned as a self-contained political party from 1918, This party adopted the designation of the "National Liberal Federation of India" in 1919 at its second session held in Calcutta.The sixth session of the National Liberal Federation of India met at Poona on the 26th December,1923. The welcome address was delivered by Dewan Bahadur K.B.Godbole. President of the Conference was Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru. KC Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly. P.C. Joshi, the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India, was one of the leading figures of the communist movement in India. Born in Almora in 1907, Joshi joined the Communist Party in 1929.


Q.76. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?


(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses

.

(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.

(d) Tansen invented many Ragas


Explanation


Tansen was the title given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandavagarh (Rewa). When Akbar heard of his prodigious talent, he sent a ‘firman’ to the king asking for Tansen and made him one of the Navaratnas in his court. He gave him the title of ‘Mian’. Tansen is also known as the ‘Sangit Samrat’, according to Musical Heritage of India by Lalita Ramakrishna. Abul Fazl records in his Ain-i-Akbari that Akbar gave Rs 2 lakhs to Tansen for his first performance in the court. He composed many dhrupads on Ganesha, Shiva, Parvati and Rama. He also composed songs on his patrons. Kalpadruma is a compliation of 300 of his dhrupads that were in Gauhar Bani. Tansen composed in his favourite ragas — Multani, Bhairavi and Todi . He invented the night raga Darbari Kanhra, morning raga Mian Ki Todi, mid-day raga, Mian ki Sarang, seasonal raga Mian ki Malhar. His descendants and disciples are called Seniyas.


Q.77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?


(a) Humayun

(b) Akbar

(c) Jahangir

(d) Shah Jahan


Explanation


Jahangir seems to have preferred paintings representing contemporary events, experiences, etc. to those illustrating the classics and fables of India and Persia. There also appears to be shift in interest from manuscript illumination to portraiture and album painting.


Q.78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?


(a) Manas National Park

(b) Namdapha National Park

(c) Neora Valley National Park

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park


Explanation


The boundaries of both Nanda Devi National Park and Valley of Flower are confined largely to the sub-alpine, lower alpine and higher alpine zones. Some temperate fir forest occurs in the lower altitudes of the Rishi Gorge in Nanda Devi National Park.


Q.79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the


(a) Department of Science and Technology

(b) Ministry of Employment

(c) NITI Aayog

(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Explanation


Atal Innovation mission is set up under NITI Aayog. Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) including Self-Employment and Talent Utilization (SETU) is Government of India‘s endeavour to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship. Its objective is to serve as a platform for promotion of world-class Innovation Hubs, Grand Challenges, Start-up businesses and other self-employment activities, particularly in technology driven areas.


Q.80. On 21st June, the Sun


(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn


Explanation


On 21st June, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the sun. The rays of the sun fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. The North Pole is inclined towards the sun and the places beyond the Arctic Circle experience continuous daylight for about six months.


Q.81. Consider the following statements:


1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.

2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.

3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Nitrogen Assessment reports that agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture

.

Statement 2 is correct: Ruminant animals do not efficiently utilize dietary nitrogen. Excess nitrogen fed in the form of feed proteins is excreted in manure (urine + faeces). Dairy cows on average secrete in milk 25 to 35 percent of the nitrogen they consume and almost all the remaining nitrogen is excreted in urine and faeces with about half of the nitrogen excreted in urine. Approximately 60 to 80 percent of the nitrogen in urine is in the form of urea. Nitrogen in manure can be converted to ammonia through bacterial degradation, primarily the conversion of urinary urea to ammonia. Urease, an enzyme produced by microorganisms in faeces, reacts with urinary urea to form ammonia. Urease activity in faeces is high and rapidly converts urea to ammonia after excretion. Statement 3 is correct: The poultry industry in India growing at 6 per cent per year emitted N to the tune of 0.415 Mt in 2016, which will increase to 1.089 Mt by 2030.


Q.82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?


(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits

(b) Tropical rain forests

(c) Underground cave systems

(d) Water reservoirs


Explanation


Kangsabati Reservoir Project in West Bengal Isapur Dam is an earthfill dam on Penganga river in the state of Maharashtra in India. The Aliyar Dam was constructed during 1959-1969 across the Aliyar river, in the state of Tamil Nadu.


Q.83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) is fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:


1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Explanation


Statement 1 is incorrect and 3 is correct: CNG is compressed natural gas. With natural gas mainly composed of methane, CNG emits fewer air pollutants — carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides and particulate matter — than petrol or diesel. H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18% to 20%.


Statement 2 is correct. While they reduce carbon and hydrogen footprint, there is no reduction in nitrogen oxide emissions.

STatement 4 is incorrect. A preliminary assessment has revealed that the cost escalation for shifting to HCNG buses will be about 72 paise per kilometre

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Q.84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?


(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.

(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.

(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.


Explanation


The favourable weather elements for dew include clear skies, light wind, decent soil moisture, and low night-time dew point depressions. Cloudy skies will reflect and absorb while re-emitting longwave radiation back to the surface and that prevents as much cooling from occurring. Clear skies allow for the maximum release of longwave radiation to space


Q.85. Consider the following statements:


1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of Indian struck down the (99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation


Statement 1 is incorrect. The 39th Amendment Act (1975) kept the election of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian courts. In the Indira Nehru Gandhi case (1975) court said that this provision was beyond the amending power of Parliament as it affected the basic structure of the constitution.

Statement 2 is correct. SC held that “The expectation from the judiciary, to safeguard the rights of the citizens of this country, can only be ensured, by keeping it absolutely insulated and independent, from the other organs of governance.” Thus, the Bench in a majority of 4:1 rejected the NJAC Act and the Constitutional Amendment as “unconstitutional and void” for violation of independence of the judiciary. It held that the collegium system, as it existed before the NJAC, would again become “operative.


Q.86. Consider the following statements:


1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot / be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting

.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4


Explanation


Statement 1 is not correct and 3 is correct: The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment: It says, the Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.

Statement 2 is not correct: A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the President. The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity. But, the words are not defined in the Article 124.

Statement 4 is correct: A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the President. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (i.e., a majority of the total membership of that House and majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting).


Q.87. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime


(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(c) Indira Gandhi

(d) Morarji Desai


Explanation


The First Amendment in 1951 marked the addition of the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution. This was intended to protect land reform laws from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights. According to Article 13(2) of the Constitution, the state shall not make any law that will be inconsistent with the fundamental rights.


Q.88. Consider the following statement


1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.

.

2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.

3.Till recently, India importer meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production


Which of the statements given is/are correct?


(a) 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: The nationalisation was done in two phases, the first with the coking coal mines in 1971-72 and then with the non-coking coal mines in 1973. In October 1971, the Coking Coal Mines (Emergency Provisions) Act, 1971 provided for taking over in public interest of the management of coking coal mines and coke oven plants pending nationalisation. This was followed by the Coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1972 under which the coking coal mines and the coke oven plants other than those with the Tata Iron & Steel Company Limited and Indian Iron & Steel Company Limited, were nationalised and brought under the Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL), a new Central Government Undertaking. Another enactment, namely the Coal Mines (Taking Over of Management) Act, 1973, extended the right of the Government of India to take over the management of the coking and non-coking coal mines in seven States including the coking coal mines taken over in 1971. This was followed by the nationalisation of all these mines on 1.5.1973 with the enactment of the Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973 which now is the piece of Central legislation determining the eligibility of coal mining in India.

.

Statement 2 is not correct: Under the provisions of the Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015, auction of coal mines is conducted in an electronic platform through a transparent mechanism.

Statement 3 is not correct: The quantity of coal imports has increased only by 9.1% from 190.95MT to 208.27MT in 2017-18


Q.89.Consider the following statement


1. The Parliament (Prevent Disqualification) Act, 1959 e: several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’

.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well defined in the Constitution of India.


Which of the statements given is/are correct?


(a)1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: Article 102 of the Constitution provides that a person shall be disqualified from being chosen as a Member of Parliament (MP) if he holds an office of profit under the government of India or the government of a state. However, Parliament can declare by law that the holding of certain offices will not incur this disqualification.

Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 19596 declares that certain offices of profit under the Government shall not disqualify the holders thereof for being chosen as (or for being) members of Parliament.

Statement 2 is correct: The act has been amended 5 times, last being in 2013.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The term has not been defined in the constitution.


Q.90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the trans tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?


(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Ninth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule


Explanation


Option (b) is the correct answer. Fifth Schedule deals with Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes. Under this Schedule the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void.


Option (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect.


Third Schedule deals with Forms of Oaths or Affirmations. Ninth Schedule Acts and Regulations 19 of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters.
And the Twelfth Schedule deals with Municipalities. It has 18 matters. This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992.


Q.91. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of


(a) anti-malarial drug

(b) biodiesel

(c) pulp for paper industry

(d) textile fibre


Explanation


Girardinia diversifolia (Himalayan nettle) is a fibre-yielding plant, and an important livelihood option for people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu Kush Himalaya.


Q.92. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?


1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location

2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location

3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location


Select the correct answer using the code given below.

:


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Remote sensing is the process of detecting and monitoring the physical characteristics of an area by measuring its reflected and emitted radiation at a distance from the targeted area. It is used for a wide range of applications.

Statement 1 is correct. Based on the green light emitted a particular area, the chlorophyll content of the vegetation can be determined.

Statement 2 is correct. CO2 can be measured as certain wavelengths light gets absorbed by atmospheric trace gases and the depth of the absorption lines in the reflected spectrum provides information about its atmospheric abundance.

Statement 3 is correct. Temperature of specific area can also be determined as the radiation captured by the satellites will differ based on the temperature of the area.


Q.93. Consider the following States:


1. Chhattisgarh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Maharashtra

4. Odisha


With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

(a) 2-3-1-4

(b) 2-3-4-1

(c) 3-2-4-1

(d) 3-2-1-4


Explanation


The percentage of forest cover to the total area of State in the above states is as follows: Chhatisgarh-41.09 % Madhya Pradesh-25.11 % Odisha- 32.98 % Maharashtra-16%


Q.94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate?


1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

2. Large deposits of methane hydrate are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.

3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.


Select the correct answer using the code given below. :


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is correct: As the Earth warms, and the Arctic warms especially fast, the permafrost melts and soil decomposition accelerates releasing methane trapped in the frozen gas hydrates. Consequently, an initial warming leads to more emission, leading to more warming and more emission.


Statement 2 is not correct: Enormous amounts of methane hydrate have been found beneath Arctic permafrost, beneath Antarctic ice, and in sedimentary deposits along continental margins worldwide. In some parts of the world they are much closer to high-population areas than any natural gas field.


Statement 3 is correct: The main mechanism for removal of methane from the earth’s atmosphere is oxidation within the troposphere by the hydroxyl radical (OH). A hydroxyl radical is a negatively charged oxygen atom bonded to a hydrogen atom (OH). Hydroxyl radicals are a form of “sink” because they “scrub” the atmosphere clean of pollutant molecules and break them down. For this reason OH is known as the ‘cleanser of the atmosphere’. After reacting with OH, atmospheric methane is converted to CO2 by a long series of chemical reactions Some of the methane present in the troposphere passes into the stratosphere where the same process scrubs the atmosphere clean of methane there.


Q.95. Consider the following:


1. Carbon monoxide.

2. Methane.

3. Ozone.

4. Sulphur dioxide.


Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 arid 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Explanation


A widely used process to get rid of the crop residue, stubble burning leads to harmful gases like Methane, Carbon Monoxide, Volatile Organic Compound, and Carcinogenic Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons being released into the air, causing massive air pollution.


Q.96.Consider the following pairs


1. Adriatic Sea- Albania

2. Black Sea -Kazakhstan

3. Caspian Sea- Morocco

4. Mediterranean Sea- Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?


(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


Explanation


Pair 2 is not correct: Black Sea does not border Croatia.

Pair 5 is not correct: Red Sea does not border Syria.


Q.97.Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?


(a) China

(b) India.

(c) Myanmar.

(d) Vietnam.

>

Explanation


India [US$7.4 billion (30.1% of total rice exports)] is the country that exported the highest dollar value worth of rice during 2018.


Q.98. Consider the following pairs:


1.Bandarpunch- Yamuna

2.Bara Shigri- Chenab

3.Milam -Mandakini

4.Siachen- Nubra

5.Zemu -Manas


Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 5

(d) 3 and 5

>

Explanation


Pair 1 is correct: Bandarpunch glacier in the Uttarakhand region of India is highly significant as it acts as one of the prime sources of fresh water for the Yamuna basin.

Pair 2 is correct : Bara Shigri is the largest glacier located in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India, Bara-Sigri glacier which is the second longest glacier in Himalaya (Indian side) after Gangotri, both are around 30 km long. The glacier is located in the Chandra Valley of Lahaul. The glacier feeds the Chenab River.

Pair 3 is not correct: Milam Glacier is the source of Gori Ganga River which acts as an important tributary of Kali River.

Pair 4 is correct: Siachen melting waters are the main source of the Nubra River in the Indian region of Ladakh, which drains into the Shyok River. Pair 5 is not correct: The Zemu Glacier drains the east side of Kanchenjunga, is the source of Teesta River.


Q.99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as


(a) pesticides in agriculture.

(b) preservatives in processed foods.

(c) fruit-ripening agents.

(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics.


Explanation


The carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos are pesticides used in agriculture.


Q.100. Consider the following statements:


1.Under the Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.

2.The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.

3.The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.


Which of the statements given above is /are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation


Statement 1 is not correct: Ramsar Convention is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. It is not mandatory for governments to adopt the Convention.

Statement 2 is not correct : These rules were not framed on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.

Statement 3 is correct : Under the Wetland Rules , 2010, ""wetland"" means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland covered under the notification of the Government of India in the Ministry of Environment and Forest

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